At Acts chapter 12 and verse 4 the KJV has the name of a pagan feast - easter.
The Greek of that verse says pascha. In every other one of the 28 instances of pascha in the KJV it is correctly translated as Passover.
I have heard the silly arguments about the writers writing for uneducated people who would not have known what Passover was. That is just a nonsensical argument, bearing in mind the rest of that translation. Also, if it really were the case, then the translaters should have used the opportunity to educate people, not to lead them further into falsehood (easter is NOT Biblical. It is the feast of the godess easter)
It must also be pointed out that language changes. NONE of us speaks in 17th Century English.
Some reasons:
In the 17th Century if one "prevented" something, one assisted it.
If one "let" something, one disallowed it.
Those words have swapped meanings, effectively.
Language and the use of words changes.
The KJV may, in 1611, have been a good version. However we (most of us anyway) are in 2008. The language and words used in our Bible must reflect that.